IBPS
Common
Written Exam PO/MT Held on
18-09-2011
REASONING ABILITY
Directions (Q. 1): Study the
following information carefully and answer the given questions.
1. A school bus driver starts
from the school, drives 2 km towards North, takes a left turn and drives for 5
km. He then takes a left turn and drives for 8 km before taking a left turn
again and driving for further 5 km. The driver finally takes a left turn and
drives 1 km before stopping. How far and towards which direction should the
driver drive to reach the school again?
1) 3 km towards North 2) 7 km
towards East 3) 6 km towards South 4) 6 km towards West 5) 5 km towards North
Directions (Q. 2-3): Read the
following information carefully and answer the questions which follow.
A, B, C, D, E and F live on
different floors in the same building having six floors numbered one to six
(the ground floor is numbered one, the floor above it is numbered two, and so
on, and the topmost floor is numbered 6).
A lives on an even-numbered
floor. There are two floors between the floors on which D and F live. F lives
on a floor above D's floor. D does not live on the floor numbered two. B does
not live on an odd-numbered floor. C does not live on any of the floors below
F's floor. E does not live on a floor immediately above or immediately below
the floor on which B lives.
2. Who among the following
live on the floors exactly between D and F?
1)E,B 2)C,B 3)E,C 4)A,E 5)B,A
3. On which of the following
floors does B live?
1) Sixth 2) Fourth 3) Second 4)
Fifth 5) Cannot be determined
Directions (Q. 4-5): Study
the following information to answer the given questions.
In a five-letter English word
(which mayor may not be a meaningful English word), there are two letters
between L and P. S is not placed immediately next to L. There is only one
letter between S and A. S is towards the right of A. S is not placed
immediately next to E.
4. Which of the following is
correct with respect to the word thus formed?
1) E is at one of the extreme
ends of the word.
2) P is not placed
immediately next to A.
3) There are two letters
between A and E in the word thus formed.
4) P is placed second to the
right of E.
5) None is correct
5. Which of the following
words will be formed based on the given conditions?
l)SPAEL 2)PEALS 3) LEAPS 4)SEPAJL
5) LAPSE
Directions (Q. 6-10): In each
question below are given two/three statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and Il, You have to take the given statements to be true even if
they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of
the given conclusions logically follows (from the given statements disregarding
commonly known facts. Give answer
1) if only conclusion I
follows.
2) if only conclusion II
follows.
3) if either conclusion I or
conclusion II follows.
4) if neither conclusion I
nor conclusion II follows.
5) if both conclusion I and
conclusion II follow.
(Q.6-7):
Statements: All gliders are parachutes.
No parachute is an airplane.
All airplanes are helicopters.
6. Conclusions:
I No helicopter is a glider.
II All parachutes being
helicopters is a possibility.
7. Conclusions:
I No glider is an airplane.
II All gliders being helicopters
is a possibility.
8. Statements: Some
mails are chats.
All updates are chats.
Conclusions:
I All mails being updates is
a possibility
II No updateis a mail.
(Q.9.10):
Statements: No stone is metal.
Some metals are papers. All
papers are glass.
9. Conclusions:
I No glass is metal
II. At least some glasses are
metals.
10. Conclusions:
I All stones being glass is a
possibility.
II No stone is paper.
Directions (Q. 11-15): Study
the following information to answer the given questions.
A word and number arrangement
machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following
a particular rule, The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
(All the numbers are two-digit numbers.)
Input: sine 88 71 cos theta
1456 gamma delta 26
Step I.
cos sine 71 theta 14 56 gamma delta 26 88
Step II. delta cos sine
theta 1456 gamma 26 88 71
Step III. gamma delta cos
sine theta 1426 88 71 56
Step IV. sine gamma delta cos
theta 14 88 71 5626
Step V. theta sine gamma
delta cos 88 71 5626 14
Step V is the last step of
the rearrangement.
As per the rules followed in
the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate
steps for the given input.
Input for the questions:
Input: for 52 all 9625 jam road 15 hut 73 bus stop 38 46
(All the numbers given in the
arrangement are two-digit numbers.)
11. Which word/number should
be at 8th position from the right in step IV?
1) 15 2) road 3)
hut 4) jam 5) stop
12. Which step number would be
the following output?
bus all for 52 25 jam road 15
hut stop 384696 73
1) There will be no such
step. 2) III 3) II 4)V 5)VI
13. Which of the following
would be step VII?
1) stop road jam hut for bus
all 15 96 73 52463825
2) road jam hut for bus all
stop 15 25 38 46 52 73 96
3) stop road jam hut for bus
all 9673 524638 25 15
4) jam hut for bus all 25
road stop 1596735246 38
5) There will be no such
step.
14. Which word/number would
be at 6th position from the left in step V?
1) 25 2) stop 3)
jam 4) all 5) road
15. Which of the following
would be step III?
1) hut for bus all 25 jam
road 15 stop 38 96 73 5246
2) for bus all 25 jam road 15
hut 38 stop 96 46 7352
3) hut for bus all jam road
15 stop 38 96 73 5246 25
4) for bus all 25 jam road 15
hut stop 38 46 96 7352
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 16-20): Study
the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Representatives of eight
different banks, viz A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H, are sitting around a circular
table, facing the centre, but not necessarily in the same order. Each one of
them is from a different bank, viz UCO Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Bank of
Maharashtra, Canara Bank, Syndicate Bank, Punjab
National Bank, Bank of India and Dena Bank.
F sits second to the right of
the representative of Canara Bank. The representative of Bank of India is an
immediate neighbour of the representative of Canara Bank. Two person sit
between the representative of Bank of India and 13. C and E are immediate neighbours.
Neither C nor E is an immediate neighbour of either B or the representative of
Canara Bank. The representative of Bank of Maharashtra sits second to the right
of D. D is the representative of neither Canara Bank nor Bank of India. G and
the representative of UCO Bank are immediate neighbours. B is not the
representative of UCO Bank. Only one person sits between C and the
representative of Oriental Bank of Commerce.
H sits third to the left of
the representative of Dena Bank. The representative of Punjab National Bank
sits second to the left of the representative of Syndicate Bank.
16. Four of the following
five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and thus form a
group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1) H - UCOBank
2) A - Canara Bank
3) D - Bank of Maharashtra
4) E - Syndicate Bank
5) F - Punjab National Bank
17. Which of the following is
true with respect to the given seating arrangement?
1) B is the representative of
Bank of Maharashtra.
2) C sits second to the right
of H.
3) The representative of Dena
Bank sits on2 the immediate left of the representative of UCO Bank.
4) A sits second to the right
of the representative of Bank of India.
5) The representatives of
Bank of Maharashtra and Syndicate Bank are immediate neighbours.
18. Who among the following
sit exactly between B and the representative of Bank of India?
1) A and the representative
of UCO Bank
2) F and G
3) H and the representative
of Bank of Maharashtra
4) H and G
5) Representatives of
Syndicate Bank and Oriental Bank of Commerce
19. Who among the following
is the representative of Oriental Bank of Commerce?
I)A 2)C 3)H 4)0 5)D
20. Who amongst the following
sits second to the left of B?
I)C 2)H 3) The
representative of Canara Bank 4)
The representative of Punjab National Bank
5)G
Directions (Q. 21-25): Each
of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I,
II and III given below it You have to decide whether the data provided in the
statements are sufficient to answer the question.
21. How many daughters does W
have?
I. Band D are the sisters of
M.
II. M's father T is the
husband of W.
III. Out of the three
children which T has, only one is a boy.
1) Only I and III are
sufficient to answer the question.
2) All I, II and III are
required to answer the question.
3) Only II and III are
sufficient to answer the question.
4) Question cannot be
answered even with all I, T1 and III.
5) Only I and II are
sufficient to answer the question.
22. Who among A, B, C, D, E
and F, each having a different height, is the tallest?
I B is taller than A but
shorter than E.
II Only two of them are
shorter than C.
III D is taller than only F.
I) Only I and II are
sufficient to answer the question.
2) Only I and III are
sufficient to answer the question.
3) Only II and III are
sufficient to answer the question.
4) All 1, II and III are
required to answer the question.
5) All I, II and III even
together are not sufficient to answer the question.
23. Towards which direction
is Village J from Village W?
I Village R is to the west of
Village Wand to the north of Village T.
II Village Z is to the east
of Village J and to the south of Village T.
III Village M is to the
north-east of Village J and to the north of Village Z.
1) Only III is sufficient to
answer the question.
2) Only II and III sufficient
to answer the question.
3) All I, II and III are
required to answer the question.
4) Question cannot be
answered even with all I, II and III.
5) None of these
24. On which day of the week
did Suresh visit Chennai? (Assume that the week starts from Monday.)
I Suresh took a leave on
Wednesday.
II Suresh visited Chennai the
day after his mother's visit to his house.
III Suresh's mother visited
Suresh's house on neither Monday nor Thursday.
1) Only II and III are
sufficient to answer the question.
2) Only I and II are
sufficient to answer the question.
3) Only I and III are
sufficient to answer the question.
4) All I, II and III are
required to answer the question.
5) Question cannot be
answered even with all I, II and III.
25. How is 'go' written in a
code language?
I 'now or never again' is
written as 'tom ka na sa' in that code language.
II 'you come again now' is
written as 'ja ka ta sa' in that code language.
III 'again go now or never'
is written as 'na ho ka sa tom' in that code language.
1) Only I and III are
sufficient to answer the question.
2) Only II and III are sufficient
to answer the question.
3) Only I and II are
sufficient to answer the question.
4) All I, II and III are
required to answer the question.
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 26-30): Study
the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
P, Q, R, S, T, V, Wand Z are
going to three destinations Delhi, Chennai and Hyderabad in three different
vehicles Honda City, Swift D’Zire and Ford Ikon. There are three females among
them-one in each car. There are at least two persons in each car.
R is not travelling with Q
and W. T, a male, is travelling with only Z and they are not going to Chennai.
P is travelling in Honda City and is going to Hyderabad
26. Members of which of the
following cars are going to Chennai?
I) Honda City 2) Swift D’Zire
3) Ford Ikon 4) Either Swift D 'Zire or Ford
Ikon
5) None of these
27. In which car are four
members travelling?
1) None 2) Honda City 3)Swift D'Zire 4) Ford Ikon 5) Either Honda City or Ford Ikon
28. Which of the following
combinations represents the three female members?
1)QSZ 2)WSZ 3)
PSZ 4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these
29. Who is travelling with W?
1) Only Q 2) Only P 3) Both P
and Q
4) Cannot be determined 5)
None of these
30. Members of which of the
following combinations are travelling in Honda City?
I)PRS 2) PQW 3)
PWS 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these
31. It has been reported in
recent years that a very large number of seats in engineering colleges in the
country remain vacant at the end of the admission session. Which of the
following may be the probable cause of the above effect?
1) There has been a
considerable decrease in hiring of engineering graduates due to economic
slowdown in . the recent years.
2) Students have always
preferred to complete graduation in three years, time instead of four years for
engineering.
3) The Govt has recently
decided to provide post qualification professional training to all engineering
graduates at its own cost.
4) There has always been a
very poor success rate among the engineering students.
5) None of these
32. The condition of the
roads in the city has deteriorated considerably during the first two months of
monsoon and most of the roads have developed big potholes. Which of the
following can be a possible effect of the above cause?
1) The municipal corporation
had repaired all the roads in the city before the onset of monsoon with good
quality material.
2) A large number of people
have developed spine related injuries after regularly commuting long distances
by road within the city.
3) The municipal corporation
has been careful in choosing the contractors for repairing roads in the past.
4) People always complain
about potholed roads during the monsoon months.
5) None of these
33. Majority of the students
who appeared in the final examination of postgraduate course in management in
the local college have secured first class, which is comparatively higher than
the performance of students of other management colleges in the state.
Which of the following may
indicate that the results are not in line with the general trend?
1) The students of the local
college are qualitatively better than those of other colleges.
2) The authorities of the
other management colleges in the state are stris,ter in their standard of
evaluation.
3) The students of other
management colleges in the state performed better than the students of the
local college in all the previous examinations.
4) The local management
college recently retrenched many of its regular faculty members.
5) None of these
34. It has been reported in
many leading newspapers that the current year's monsoon may be below the
expected level as many parts of the country are still not getting adequate
rainfall.
Which of the following can be
a possible fallout of the above situation?
1) People from those affected
areas with less rainfall may migrate to urban areas.
2) Govt may announce exgratia
payment to all the farmers affected in these areas.
3) Govt may declare these
areas as drought-affected.
4) People may blame the govt
and agitate for not getting adequate water for cultivation.
5) None of these
35. There has been a spate of
rail accidents in India
1) Indian Railways is known
for providing best comfort to its passenger.
2) People have no option
other than travelling by rail over long distances.
3) The railway tracks at many
places have been found to be stressed due to wear and tear in the recent times.
4) Local residents are always
the first to provide a helping hand to the passengers in the event of such
disasters.
5) None of these
36. A few travellers were
severely beaten up by villagers recently in a remote rural part of the state as
the villagers found the movement of the travellers suspicious. The district
authority has sent a police team to nab the culprits. Which of the following
inferences can be drawn from the above statement? (An inference is something
which is not directly stated but can be inferred from the given facts.)
1) The villagers dislike the
presence of strangers in their vicinity.
2) Villagers are generally
suspicious in nature.
3) Travellers prefer to visit
countryside.
4) The govt generally
provides protection to travellers across the country.
5) None of these
37. There has been a
considerable drop in sales of four wheelers during the past six months when
compared to the number of four-wheelers sold during this period last year.
Which of the following can
the probable cause(s) of the above phenomenon?
(A) The govt imposed higher
excise duty on fourwheelers at the beginning of this year.
(B) The petrol prices have
lisen considerably during the past eight months.
(C) The rate of interest on
home and car loans have been rising for the past seven months.
I)All (A), (B) and (C) 2) Only (A) and (C) 3) Only (B) and (C) 4) (B) Only 5)
(A) Only
38. There is an alarming
trend of skewed sex ratio against women in India
Which of the following can be
an effective step to reverse the trend?
(A) The govt should
immediately completely ban the use of scanners/sonography on expecting mothers
at all health centres.
(B) The govt should announce
a substantial incentive scheme for couples who have at least one girl child.
(C) The Govt should launch a
nationwide campaign to create awareness against female foeticide.
I) Only (A) 2) Only (A) and (B) 3) Only (B) and (C) 4) All (A), (B) and (C) 5)
None of these
39. A very large number of
technically qualified young Indians are coming out of colleges every year
though there are not enough opportunities for them to get gainful employment.
Which of the following
contradicts the views expressed in the above statement?
1) Technically qualified
persons are far superior to those with standard degrees like BA/BSc/BCom etc.
2) The govt. has not done
effective planning for engaging technically qualified personnel while
authorising the setting up of technical colleges.
3) A huge gap exists between
the level of competence of technically qualified graduates and requirements of
the industry.
4) Majority of the
technically qualified persons are migrating from India
5) None of these
40. The govt has appealed to
all citizens to use potable water judiciously as there is an acute shortage in
supply. Excessive use may lead to huge scarcity in coming months . Which of the
following assumptions is implicit in the above statement? (An assumption is
something supposed or taken for granted.)
1) People may ignore the
appeal and continue using water as per their consideration.
2) Govt may be able to tap
those who do not respond to the appeal.
3) Govt may be able to put in
place alternate sources of water in the event of crisis.
4) A large number of people
may positively respond to the govt's appeal and help tide over the crisis.
5) Only the poor are going to
suffer from this shortage of water supply.
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
Directions (Q. 51.55): What
will come in place of question mark en in the following questions?
51. 346 
295-18611=? + 5883
295-18611=? + 5883
1)997091 2)997071 3)9997090 4)
999070 5) None of these
52. (23.1)2 +
(48.6)2-(39.8)2=? + 1147.69
1)(13.6)2 2) 
3) 163.84 4)
12.8 5) None of
these
3) 163.84 4)
12.8 5) None of
these
53. 
1) 
2) 0.75 3) 
4) 
5) None of these
2) 0.75 3) 4) 5) None of these
54. 
1) 
2) 
3) 382 4)
386 5) None of these
2) 3) 382 4)
386 5) None of these
55. 
1) 3844 2)
3721 3) 3481 4)
3638 5) none of these
Directions (Q. 56-60): What
approximate value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following
questions? (Note: You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)
56. 39.897% of 4331 +58.779%
of 5003 = ?
1)4300 2)4500 3)4700 4)4900 5)5100
57. 43931.03 + 2111.02 x
401.04 =?
1)8800 2)7600 3)7400 4)9000 5)1'300
58. 
1)3000 2)2800 3)2500 4)3300 5)2600
59. 
1) 7600 2) 7650 3) 7860 4) 7560 5) 7680
60. 59.88 + 12.21 x 6.35 = ?
1) 10 2)50 3)30
4)70 5)90
Dirctions (Q. 61-65): In the
following number series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.
61. 7 12 40
222 1742 17390 208608
1)7 2)12 3)40 4)1742 5)208608
62. 6 91
584 2935 11756
35277 70558
1)91 2)70558 3)584 4)2935 5)35277
63. 9050 5675
3478 2147 1418
1077 950
1)3478 2) 1418 3)5675
4)2147 5) 1077
64. 1 4 25 256 3125 46656
823543
1)3125 2)823543 3)46656 4)25
5)256
65. 8424 4212
2106 1051 526.5
1) 131.625 2) 1051 3)
4212 4) 8424 5) 263.25
66. Rubina could get equal
number of Rs. 55, Rs. 85 and Rs.105 tickets for a movie. She spends Rs. 2,940
for all the tickets. How many of each did she buy?
1)12 2)14 3) 16 4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these
67. The simple interest
accrued on an amount of Rs.22,500 at the end of four years is Rs.10,800. What
would be the compound interest accrued on the same amount at the same rate of
interest at the end of two years?
1)Rs. 16,908 2)Rs. 5,724 3)Rs.
28,224 4)Rs. 8,586 5) None of these
68. The ratio of the present
age of Manisha and Deepali is 5 : X. Manisha is 9 years younger than Parineeta.
Parineeta's age after 9 years will be 33 years. The difference between
Deepali's and Manisha's age is the same as the present age of Parineeta. What
should come in place of X?
1)23 2)39 3) 15 4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these
69. Ramola's monthly income
is three times Ravina's monthly income. Ravina's monthly income is fifteen per
cent more than Ruchira's monthly income. Ruchira's monthly income is Rs.
32,000. What is Ramola's annual h '.Jme?
1) 10,400 2) Rs. 13,24,800 3) Rs. 36,800 4)
52,200 5) None of these
70. An HR Company employs
4800 persons, out of which 45 per cent are males and 60 per cent of the males
are either 25 years or older. How many males are employed in that HR Company
who are younger than 25 years?
1)2640 2)2160 3) 1296 4)864
5) None of these
71. Seema bought 20 pens, 8
packets of wax colours, 6 calculators and 7 pencil boxes. The price of one pen
is Rs.7 , one packet of wax colour is for Rs. 22, one calculator is for Rs 175
and one pencil box costs Rs14 more than the combined price of one pen and one
packet of wax colours. How much amount did Seema pay to the shopkeeper?
1) Rs. 1,491 2) Rs.1,725
3) Rs. 1,667 4) Rs. 1,527 5) None of these
72. The average marks in
English of a class of 24 students is 56. If the marks of three students were
misread as 44, 45 and 61 in lieu of the actual marks 48, 59 and 67
respectively, then what would be the correct average?
1) 56.5 2) 59 3) 57.5 4) 58 5) None of these
73. In a test, a candidate
secured 468 marks out of maximum marks' N . Had the maximum marks' A' converted
to 700 he would have secured 3% marks. What was the maximum marks of the test?
1)775 2)875 3)975
4) 1075 5) None of these
74. Six -elevenths of a
number is equal to twenty two per cent of the second number. The second number
is equal to one-fourth of the third number. The value of the third number is
2400. What is 45% of the first number?
1)109.8 2)111.7 3)117.6 4)
123.4 5) None of these
75. In an entrance
examination, Ritu scored 56 per cent marks, Smita scored 92 per cent marks and
Rina scored 634 marks. The maximum marks of the examination is 875. What is the
average marks scored by all the three girls together?
1)1929 2)815 3)690 4) 643
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 76-80): Study
the given information carefully to answer the questions that follow.
An urn contains 4 green, 5
blue, 2 red and 3 yellow marbles.
76. If two marbles are drawn
at random, what is the probability that both are red or at least one is red?
1) 
2) 
3) 
4) 
5) none of these
2) 3) 4) 5) none of these
77. If three marbles are
drawn at random, what is the probability that at least one is yellow?
1) 2) 3) 
4) 
5) none of these
2) 3) 4) 5) none of these
78. If eight marbles are
drawn at random, what is the probability that there are equal numbers of
marbles of each colour?
1) 
2) 
3) 
4) 
5) none of these
2) 3) 4) 5) none of these
79. If three marbles are
drawn at random, what is the probability that none is green?
1) 
2) 
3) 
4) 
5) 
2) 3) 4) 5)
80. If four marbles are drawn at random, what is
the probability that two are blue and two are red?
1) 
2) 
3) 
4) 5) none of
these
2) 3) 4) 5) none of
these
Directions (Q. 81-85): Study
the table carefully to answer the questions that follow:
The number of persons
visiting six different Supermarkets and the percentage of Men, Women and
Children visiting those Super markets.
I
81. The number of men
visiting Super market D forms approximately what per cent of the total number
of person visiting all the Super markets together?
1) 11 2)5.5 3)
13 4)9 5)7.5
82. The number of children
visiting Super market C forms what per cent of the number of children visiting Supermarket
F? (rounded off to two digits after decimal)
1)91.49 2)49.85 3) 121.71 4)
109.30 5) None of these
83. What is the total number
of children visiting Super markets B and D together?
1)18515 2)28479 3)31495 4)
22308 5) None of these
84. What is the average of
women visiting all the Super markets together?
1)24823.5 2)22388.5 3)26432.5 4)
20988.5 5) None of these
85. What is the ratio of the
number of women visiting Supermarket A to that of those visiting Supermarket C?
1)35:37 2)245:316 3)352:377 4)
1041 : 1156 5) None
of these
Directions(Q.86-90): Study
the following pie-chart & answer the questions given below:
Preferences of students for
six beverages A,B,C,D, E & F in terms of degrees of angle in the pie-chart
Total number of students =
6800
86. What is the Difference
between the total number of students who prefer beverage A and C together &
the total number of students who prefer beverage D & F together?
1) 959 2) 955 3)
952 4) 954 5) none of these
87. What is the ratio of
number of students who prefer beverage F to the number of students who prefer
beverage A?
1) 3:11 2) 3:13 3) 6:11 4)
5:11 5) none of these
88. The number of students
who prefer E & F together is what percent of the total number of students?
1) 18 2) 14 3)
26 4)
24 5)
none of these
89. The number of students
who prefer beverage C is approximately what percent of the number of students
who prefer beverage D?
1) 7 2) 12 3) 18 4) 22 5)
29
90. How many students prefer
beverage B & beverage E together?
1) 2312 2) 2313
3) 2315 4) 2318 5) none of these
Directions (Q. 91-95): Study
the table carefully to answer the questions that follow:
91. How many marks did
Anushka get in all the subjects together?
1) 369 2) 463
3) 558 4) 496 5) none of these
92. The marks obtained by
Garvita in Brand Management is what percent of marks obtained by Archit in the
same subject? (rounded off to two digits after decimal)
1) 86.36 2) 101.71
3) 115.79 4) 133.33 5) none of these
93. what is the average marks
obtained by all students together in Compensation management?
1) 116 2) 120
3) 123 4) 131 5) none of these
94. who has scored the
highest total marks in all the subjects together?
1) Archit 2) Gunit 3) Pranita 4)
Garvita 5) Arpan
95. How many students have
scored the highest marks in more than one subject?
1) three 2) two 3) one 4)
none 5) none of these
Directions (Q. 96-100): Study
the following graph & answer the question that follow:
No. of students (in thousand)
who opted for three different specializations during the given five years in a
university
96. out of the total number
of students who opted for the given three subjects, in the year 2009, 38% were
girls, how many boys opted for mathematics in the same year?
1) 1322 2)
1332 3) 1312 4)
cannot be determined 5)
none of these
97. If the total number of
students in the university in the year 2007 was 455030, the total number of
students who opted for the given three subjects was approximately what percent
of the total students?
1) 19 2) 29
3) 12 4) 5 5) 23
98. What is the total number
of students who opted for Hindi & Mathematics in the year 2006, 2007 & 2009
together?
1) 97000 2) 93000 3) 85000 4) 96000 5)
none of these
99. The total number of
students who opted for Mathematics in the years 2005 and 2008 together is
approximately what percent of the total number of students who opted for all
three subjects in the same years?
1)38 2)28 3)42 4)32 5)48
100. What is the ratio of the
number of students who opted for English in the years 2006 and 2008 together to
the number of students who opted for Hindi in the year 2005 and 2009 together?
1)11:5 2)12:7 3)11:7 4)
12: 5 5) None of these
GENERAL AWARENESS WITH
SPECIAL REFERENCE TO BANKING INDUSTRY
101. Which of the following
countries recently conferred its Highest State Honour on Late Mrs Indira Gandhi
for her contribution in its 'Liberation war' ?
1) South Sudan 2)
Bangladesh 3) Bhutan 4) Slovakia
5) Croatia
102. Which of the following statements
is true?
1) Banks cannot accept demand
and time deposits from public,
2) Banks can accept only
demand deposits from public.
3) Banks can accept only time
deposits from public.
4) Banks can accept both
demand and time deposits from public,
5) Banks can accept demand
and time deposits only from government.
103. Interest payable on
savings bank accounts is
1) not regulated by RBI.
2) regulated by State
Governments.
3) regulated by Central
Government.
4) regulated by RBI.
5) regulated by Finance
minister.
104. Which of the following
is a correct statement?
1) State Bank of India is the sale authority to issue and manage
currency in India
2) A nationalised bank is the
sale authority to issue and manage currency in India
3) A cooperative bank is the
sole authority to issue and manage currency in India
4) RBI is the sale authority
to issue and manage currency in India
5) None of these
105. The Home Minister of India was recently on a visit to Bangladesh
(A) The plan will help in
resolving the long-pending border dispute between both the nations.
(B) The head count of the
people living in enclaves on the border will be completed within next six
months' time.
(C) India assured that no BSF
Jawan will open fire on the people crossing the borders unless there is an
attack on them.
1) Only (A) 2) Only (B) 3) Only (C) 4) All
(A), (B) and(C) 5) Both (A) and (C)
106. The Govt of India
(A) Customs Duty (B) VAT (C)
Excise Duty
1) Only (A) 2) Both (A) and (B) 3) Both (A) and (C) 4)
Both (B) and (C) 5) All (A), (B) and
(C)
107. The President of India was recently on a visit to South Korea and Mongolia India
signed agreements with South Korea
and Mongolia
1) Peaceful use of Nuclear
energy
2) Export of edible oil to South Korea and Mongolia
3) Providing technical help
to become self-sufficient in production of foodgrains
4) Willingness of both the
countries to support India
5) To hold Olympic games in
2022 in New Delhi jointly with South Korea and Mongolia
108. Iran recently threatened that it would stop
supply of oil to India Iran
(A) The oil supplied by Iran India
(B) Indian banks have stopped
transfer of money to Iran as
UN has imposed sanctions on Iran
(C) India is bound to
purchase oil only from OPEC members. Iran
1) Only (A) 2) Only (B) 3) Only (C) 4) All
(A), (B) and (C) 5) None of
these
109. Accounts are allowed to
be operated by cheques in respect of
1) Both savings bank accounts
and fixed deposit accounts
2) Savings bank accounts and
current accounts
3) Both savings bank accounts
and loan accounts
4) Both savings bank accounts
and cash accounts only
5) Both current accounts and
fixed deposit accounts
110. Yungluck Shinawatra has
won the recently held elections to become the first woman Prime Minister of
1) Myanmar
2) South
Korea 3)
North Korea 4) Thailand
5) China
111. Which of the following
is a correct statement?
1) Normally no interest is
paid on current deposit accounts.
2) Interest is paid on
current accounts at the same rate as term deposit accounts.
3) The rate of interest on
current account and savings account are the same.
4) No interest is paid on any
deposit by the bank.
5) Savings deposits are the
same as current deposits.
112. The Lokayukta of which
of the following States had submitted a report on illegal mining of iron ore in
the State?
1) Andhra Pradesh 2) Tamil Nadu 3) Karnataka 4) Odisha 5) None of these
113. The usual deposit
accounts of banks are
1) Current accounts,
electricity accounts and insurance premium accounts
2) Current accounts, post
office savings bank accounts and term deposit accounts
3) Loan accounts, savings
bank accounts and term deposit accounts
4) Current accounts, savings
bank accounts and term deposit accounts
5) Current bill accounts and
term deposit accounts
114. Fixed deposits and
recurring deposits are
1) repayable after an agreed
period.
2) repayable on demand.
3) not repayable.
4) repayable after death of
depositors.
5) repayable on demand or
after an agreed period as per bank's choice.
115. Almost all the major
economies of the world had reacted sharply on the issue of the USA USA
(A) The Senate's decision on
the issue might have caused the US dollar to weaken further or get strengthened
in international markets.
(B) Weakening of the dollar
might have pushed up Euro and other major currencies up and some European
countries which were already in trouble would have faced a new crisis.
(C) Debt limit was directly
related to liquidity position of banks in USA
1) Only (A) 2) Only (B) 3) Only (A) and (B) both 4)
Only (B) and (C) both 5) All (A),
(B) and (C)
116. Which of the following
is not a Millennium Goal set by the UNO?
1) eradicate extreme poverty
and hunger
2) reduce child mortality
3) ensure environmental
sustainability
4) combat terrorism and bring
people in main stream of society
5) to achieve universal
primary education
117. Financial inclusion
means provision of
1) financial services,
namely, payments, remittances, savings, loans and insurance at affordable cost
to persons not yet given the same.
2) ration at affordable cost
to persons not yet given the same.
3) house at affordable cost
to persons not yet given the same.
4) food at affordable cost to
persons not yet given the same.
5) education at affordable
cost to persons not yet given the same.
118. Which of the following
statements containing results of India
1) Kerala has about 94%
literacy, the highest in India
2) The sex ratio in India
3) Male literacy is lower
than female literacy in seven most developed states.
4) Uttar Pradesh is the most
populous State in India
5) The population of India
119. Which of the following
is known as cross-selling by Banks?
(A) Sale
(B) Sale of Insurance policy
to a depositor
(C) Issuance of cash against
cheque presented by a third party
1) Only (A) 2) Only (B) 3) Only (C) 4) Both
(A) and (C) 5) All (A), (B ) and (C)
120. Angela Merkel was
recently in India
(A) She played a major role
in restarting negotiations between Russia
and USA
(B) She initiated 'Health
Care Reforms' in Germany
(C) She played a crucial role
in negotiation of the Treaty of Lisbon' and Berlin
1) Only (B) and (C) 2) Only (A) and (B) 3) Only (C) 4) Only (A)
and (C) 5) None of these
121. Japan
1) England
2) Germany
3) Argentina
4) USA
5) China
122. Which of the following
states became the first state in the country to launch RBI's e-payment system
for commercial tax payers?
1) Andhra Pradesh 2) Kerala 3)
Gujarat 4) Maharashtra
5) Karnataka
123. When a bank returns a
cheque unpaid. it is called
I) payment of the cheque 2) drawing of the cheque 3) cancelling of the cheque
4) dishonor of the cheque 5) taking of the cheque
124. Mortgage is a
1) security on movable
property for a loan given by a bank.
2) security on immovable
Property for a Joan given by a bank.
3) concession on immovable
property for a Joan given by a bank.
4) facility on immovable
property for a loan given by a bank.
5) security on immovable
property for a deposit received by a bank.
125. The world's highest 'Rail Bridge
I )Jhelum 2) Chenab 3) Indus 4) Ravi 5)
None of these
126. Which of the following films
was NOT directed by Mani Kaul, who died recently?
1) 3 Idiots 2) Ghashiram Kotwal 3) Uski Roti 4)
Duvidha 5) Ashadh Ka Ek Din
127. The President of which
of the following countries was accused of violation of "War Powers
Act" of hi s country when he decided to attack Libya
1) USA
2) France
3) Germany
4) Spain
5) Italy
128. Which of the following
schemes has been launched by the Govt of India to provide an identity to its
all resident citizens and also to identify people who are poorest, often the last
to stand up to ask for their share in govt schemes or lack identity?
1) Public Provident Fund
scheme
2) Indira Gandhi Old Age
Pension scheme
3) Social Security Scheme for
Gramin Dak Sevaks
4) MG National Rural
Employment Guarantee Act
5) Aadhaar Card scheme
129. Which of the following
types of accounts are known as 'Demat Accounts'?
I) Accounts which are Zero
Balance Accounts
2) Accounts which are opened
to facilitate repayment of a loan taken from the bank. No other business can be
conducted from there.
3) Accounts in which shares
of various companies are traded in electronic form
4) Accounts which are
operated through internet banking facility
5) None of these
130. Who amongst the
following won the Wimbledon Men's Finals 2011, which was also his first
Wimbledon Title?
1) Rafael Nadal 2) Novak Djokovic 3) Robert Bruce 4) Lleyton Hewitt 5)
None of these
131. Who is the chairman of
the committee constituted by RBI to study Issues and Concerns in the Micro
Finance Institutions (MFI) Sector?
1) YH Malegam 2) Dr KC Chakraborty 3) C Rangrajan 4) M Damodaran 5)
Smt Usha Thorat
132. Upper limit prescribed
for RTGS transaction is
1) Rs 1 lac 2) Rs 2 lacs 3) Rs 5 lacs 4) Rs. 50
lacs 5) No upper limit is prescribed
133. Distribution of
insurance products and insurance policies by banks as corporate agents is known
as
1) General Insurance 2) Non-life insurance 3)
Bancassurance 4) Insurance banking 5)
Deposit insurance
134. In order to attract more
foreign exchange the Govt of India decided to allow foreign investment in LLP
firms. What is full form of "LLP" as used in this reference
1) Local Labour Promotion
2) Low Labour Projects
1) Limited Loan Partnership
4) Longer Liability
Partnership
5) Limited Liability
Partnership
135. NEFTmeans
I) National Electronic Funds
Transfer system
2) Negotiated Efficient Fund
Transfer System
3) National Efficient Fund
Transfer Solution
4) Non Effective Fund
Transfer System
5) Negotiated Electronic
Foreign Transfer system
136. Who among the following
has been appointed as a director on board of Bank of America-s-the first non
American on the board of the one of the largest financial institutions in the
world?
l) Azirn Premji 2) Ratan Tara 3) Mukesh Ambani 4) KY Kamath 5)
Chanda Kochar
137. When the rate of
inflation increases
1) purchasing power of money
increases
2) purchasing power of money
decreases
3) value of money increases
4) purchasing power of money
remains unaffected
5) amount of money in
circulation decreases.
138. Pasco
is in the process of establishing its plants in India
1) Popular 2) Pallin 3) Pohang
139. Who among the following
has become the Chief Minister of a State in India
I) Tarun Gogoi 2) Nitish Kumar 3) J Jayalalithaa 4) Mamta Banerajee 5) None of these
140. Who among the following
is the winner of Man Booker Prize 2011 ?
1) Andrea Levy 2) Nicola Barker 3) Tom McCarthy 4) Linda Grant 5) Philip Roth
141. Interest on savings bank
account is now calculated by banks on
I) minimum balance during the
month
2) minimum balance from 7th
to last day of the month
3) minimum balance from 10th
to last day of the month
4) maximum balance during the
month
5) daily product basis
142. The third International
Conference of the Trade Unions was organized in June 2011 in
I) Vienna
2) Moscow
3) London 4) Paris 5) Berlin
143. A centralized database
with online connectivity to branches. Internet as well as ATM network which has
been adopted by almost all major banks of our country is known as
l ) investment banking 2) Core Banking 3) mobile banking 4) national banking 5)
specialised banking
144. The Govt of India
(A) India
(B) As per the Food Security
Act, India India
(C) As advised by the Supreme
Court of India, the money received from export should be used to pay subsidy to
the fanners.
l)Only (B) 2) Only (A) 3) Only (C) 4) Both
(A) & (B) 5) All (A). (B) and
(C)
145. Which of the following
is not considered a money market instrument?
1) Treasury bills 2) Repurchase Agreement 3) Commercial Paper 4) Certificate of Deposit
5) Shares and bonds
146. With a view to
facilitating payment of balance in the deposit account to the person named by
the depositor without any hassles in the event of death of the account holder,
the following facility was introduced for bank accounts in our country:
1) Will 2) Registration 3) Nomination 4) Indemnity 5) Guarantee
147. The Govt of which of the
following states has agreed to give captive mines of iron ores to all the
companies who are willing to establish plants there?
1) West Bengal 2) Odisha 3)
Jharkhand 4) Bihar
5) Karnataka
148. 'Gorkhaland Council' ,
which was recently in news, is a body set up for administration of which of the
following Districts?
1) Si liguri 2) Bagdogra 3) Malda 4)
Darjeeling
149. Banks in our country
normally publicise that additional interest rate is allowed on retail domestic
term deposits of
1) Minors 2) Married Women 3) Senior citizens 4)
Govt employee 5) Rural residents
150. Largest shareholder (in
percentage shareholding) of a nationalised bank is
I)RBI 2) NABARD 3) LICI 4)Govt
of India
COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE
151. To change selected text
to all capital letters, click the change case button, then click
1) Uppercase 2) Upper all 3)
Capslock 4) Lock Upper 5) Large Size
152. A person who uses his or
her expertise to gain access to other people's computers to get information
illegally or do damage is a
1) hacker 2) analyst 3) instant messenger 4)
programmer 5) spammer
153. A device that connects
to a network without the use of cables is said to be
I) distributed 2) free 3)
centralized 4) open source 5) None of
these
154. Reusable optical storage
will typically have the acronym
1)CD 2)DVD 3)ROM
4) RW 5)ROS
155. The most common type of
storage devices are
I) persistent 2) optical 3) magnetic 4)
Hash 5) steel
156. Codes consisting of
lines of varying widths or lengths that are computer-readable are known as
1) an ASCII code 2) a magnetic tape 3) a bar code 4) an OCR scanner 5)
None of these
157. A Web site's main page
is called its
I) Homepage 2) Browser page 3) Search Page
4) Bookmark 5) None of these
158. Part number, part description,
and number of parts ordered are examples of
1) control 2) output 3) processing 4)
feedback 5) input
159. To access properties of
an object, the mouse technique to use is
1) dragging 2) dropping 3) right-clicking 4)
shift-clicking 5) None of these
160. Computers use the number
system to store data and perform calculations.
1) binary 2) octal 3) decimal 4)
hexadecimal 5)
None of these
161. are attempts by individuals
to obtain confidential information from you by falsifying their identity.
1) Phishing trips 2) Computer viruses 3) Spyware scams 4) Viruses 5)
Phishing scams
162. Why is it unethical to
share copyrighted files with your friends?
1) It is not unethical,
because it is legal.
2) It is unethical because
the files are being given for free.
3) Sharing copyrighted files
without permission breaks copyright laws.
4) It is not unethical
because the files are being given for free.
5) It is not unethical -
anyone can access a computer
163. Which of the following
can be used to select the entire document?
1)CTRL+A 2)ALT+F5
3) SHIFT+A 4)CTRL-K 5)CTRL+H
164. To instruct Word to fit
the width of a column to the contents of a table automatically, click the __
button and then point to AutoFit Contents.
1) Fit to Form 2) Format 3) Autosize 4)
Contents 5) AutoFit
165. The simultaneous
processing of two or more programs by multiple processors is
1) multiprogramming 2) multitasking 3) time-sharing 4) multiprocessing 5) None of these
166. A disk's content that is
recorded at the time of manufacture and that cannot be changed or erased by the
user is
I) memory-only 2) write-only 3) once-only 4) run-only 5) read-only
167. What is the permanent
memory built into your computer called?
1) RAM 2) Floppy 3) CPU 4)
CD-ROM 5) ROM
168. The default view in
Excel is
1) Work 2) Auto 3) Normal 4) Roman 5) None of these
169. What displays the
contents of the active cell in Excel?
1) Name box 2)
170. In Word you can force a
page break
1) by positioning your cursor
at the appropriate place and pressing the FI key
2) by positioning your cursor
at the appropriate place and pressing Ctrl + Enter
3) by using the
Insert/Section Break
4) by changing the font size
of your document
5) None of these
171. Grouping and processing
all of a firm's transactions at one time is called
I) a database management
system 2) batch processing 3) a real-time system 4) an on-line system
5) None of these
172. Help menu is available
at which button?
I) End 2) Start 3) Turnoff 4)
Restart 5) Reboot
173. You can keep your
personal files/folders in
1) My folder 2) My Documents 3) My Files 4) My
Text 5) None of these
174. A central computer that
holds collections of data and programs for many PCs, workstations, and other
computers is a(n)
1) supercomputer 2) minicomputer 3) laptop 4)
server 5) None of these
175. When you save to this,
your data will remain intact even when the computer is turned off.
1) RAM 2) motherboard
3) secondary storage device 4) primary storage device 5) None of these
176. The __ folder retains
copies of messages that you have started but are not yet ready to send.
1) Drafts 2) Outbox 3) Address Book 4)
Sent Items 5) Inbox
177. You can __ a search by
providing more information the search engine can use to select a smaller, more
useful set of results.
1) refine 2) expand 3) load 4)
query 5) slowdown
178. The contents of_ are
lost when the computer turns off.
1) storage 2) input 3) output 4)
memory 5) None of these
179. The __ enables you to
simultaneously keep multiple Web pages open in one browser window.
1) tab box 2)
180. A DVD is an example of
a(n)
1) hard disk 2) optical disc 3) output device 4)
solid-state storage device 5) None of
these
181. The basic unit of a
worksheet into which you enter data in Excel is called a
1) tab 2) cell 3) box 4 )
182. __ is the process of
dividing the disk into tracks and sectors.
I) Tracking 2) Formatting 3) Crashing 4) Allotting 5) None of these
183. Which ports connect
special types of music instruments to sound cards?
I)BUS 2) CPU 3)
USB 4) MIDI 5) MINI
184. The process of
transferring files from a computer on the Internet to your computer is called
1) downloading 2) uploading 3)FTP 4)JPEG 5) downsizing
185. In Excel______allows
users to bring together copies of workbooks that other users have worked on
independently.
1) Copying 2) Merging 3) Pasting 4)
Compiling 5) None of these
186. If you want to connect
to your own computer through the Internet from another location, you can use
1) e-mail 2) FTP 3)
instant message 4) Telnet 5) None of these
187. To reload a Web page,
press the ______ button.
1) Redo 2) Reload 3) Restore 4) Ctrl 5) Refresh
188. Mobile Commerce is best
described as
1) The use of kiosks in
marketing
2) Transporting products
3) Buying and selling
goods/services through wireless handheld devices
4) Using notebook PCs in
marketing
5) None of the above
189. Video processors consist
of_____ and______ which store and process images.
1) CPU and VGA 2) CPU & memory 3) VGA and memory 4) VGI & DVI 5)
None of these
190. ______are words that a
programming language has set aside for its own use.
1) Control words 2) control structures 3) Reserved words 4) Reserved Keys 5)
None of these
191. What is the process of
copying software programs from secondary storage media to the hard disk called?
1) configuration 2) download 3) storage 4)
upload 5) installation
192. This first step in the
transaction processing cycle captures business data through various modes such
as optical scanning or at an electronic commerce website.
1) Document and report
generation
2) Database maintenance
3) Transaction processing
start-up
4) Data Entry
5) None of these
193. When the pointer is
positioned on a __ , it is shaped like a hand.
I)Grammar error 2) Formatting error 3) Screen Tip 4) Spelling error 5)
Hyperlink
194. The computer
abbreviation KB usually means
1) Key Block 2) Kernel Boot
3) Key Byte 4) Kit Bit 5) Kilo Byte
195. Which of the following
are advantages of CD-ROM as a storage media?
1) CD-ROM is an inexpensive
way to store large amount of data and information.
2) CD-ROM disks retrieve data
and information more quickly than magnetic disks do.
3) CD-ROMs make less errors
than magnetic media.
4) All the above
5) None of these
196. A(n) __ is a special
visual and audio effect applied in Power point to text or content.
I) animation 2) flash 3)
wipe 4) dissolve 5) None of these
197. Which of the following
is a storage device that uses rigid, permanently installed magnetic disks to
store data/ information?
1) Happy diskette 2) hard disk 3) permanent disk 4)
optical disk 5) None of these
198. The piece of hardware
that converts your computer's digital signal to an analog signal that can
travel over telephone lines is called a
I) red wire 2) blue cord 3) tower 4) modem 5) None of these
199. Personal computers can be
connected together to form a
1) server 2) supercomputer 3) network 4)
enterprise 5) None of these
200. A __ is the term used
when a search engine returns a Web page that matches the search criteria.
1) blog 2) hit 3) link 4)
view 5) success
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (Q. 201-205): In
each of the following questions, a short passage is given with one of the lines
in the passage missing and represented by a blank. Select the best out of the
five answer choices given, to make the passage complete and coherent.
201. Poverty is the state of
majority of world's people and nations. Why is this? __ Have they been lazy,
made poor decisions, and been solely responsible for their own plight? What
about their governments? Have they pursued policies that actually harm
successful development? Such causes of poverty and inequality are no doubt
real. But deeper and more global causes of poverty are often less discussed.
Behind the increasing inter-connectedness promised by globalisation are global
decisions, policies and practices. These are typically influenced, driven or
formulated by the rich and powerful. These can be leaders of rich countries or
other global actors such as multinational corporations, institutions and
influential people. In the face of such enormous external influence, the
governments of poor nations and their people are often powerless. As a result,
in the global context, a few get wealthy while the majority struggles.
I) Is it enough to blame poor
people for their own predicament?
2) What is the government
doing about it?
3) Are the wealthy ones in
the nation even aware of this?
4) The government has already
taken measures to eradicate the same.
5) The huge gap between the
rich and the poor in the nation is now narrowing.
202. Women's rights around
the world are an important indicator to understand global well -being. A major
global women's rights treaty was ratified by the majority of the world's
nations a few decades ago. __ These range from the cultural, political to the
economic. For example, women often work more than men, yet are paid less;
gender discrimination affects girls and women throughout their lifetime; and
women and girls are often the ones that suffer the most poverty. Many may think
that women's rights are only an issue in countries "{here religion is law.
Or even worse, some may think this is no longer an issue at all. But reading
the report about the United Nation's Women's Treaty and how an increasing
number of countries are lodging reservations will show otherwise. Gender
equality furthers the cause of child survival and development for all of
society, so the importance of women's rights and gender equality should not be
underestimated.
I) This treaty tackled and
solved a number of issues related to women.
2) Why is it then, that women
still face a number of problems on the domestic front?
3) Thus, the woman today is
ten times more empowered as compared to a woman say about a decade ago.
4) Women's activists across
nations have implored the respective governments to take this seriously.
5) Yet, despite many
successes in empowering women, numerous issues still exist in all areas of
life.
203. Research has shown that
air pollutants from fossil fuel use make clouds reflect more of the sun's rays
back into space. This leads to an effect known as global dimming whereby less
heat and energy reaches the earth. __ However, it is believed that global
dimming caused the droughts in certain parts of the world where millions died,
because the northern hemisphere oceans were not warm enough to allow rain
formation. Global dimming is also hiding the true power of global warming. By
cleaning up global dimming causing pollutants without tackling greenhouse gas
emissions, rapid warming has been observed and various human health and
ecological disasters have resulted, as witnessed during the European heat wave
in 2003, which saw thousands of people die.
I) This, though, does not
bring any relief in the problems associated with climate change.
2) This phenomenon thus is
part of the climate change problem.
3) Scientists thus believe
that this phenomenon goes hand in hand with global warming.
4) At first, it sounds like
an ironic saviour to climate change problems.
5) The answer to all our
problems with respect to climate change is definitely here.
204. Next to China , India
1) Keeping this in mind, the
government has provided concessions in the admission fees for the arts and
science streams in the country.
2) Naturally, there is too
much rush arid competition in every field.
3) Despite this the rush to higher
education is lesser.
4) This population increase,
though, has not kept pace with the knowledge expansion around the world.
5) In the next decade, it
will become the most populous.
205. Analysts and industry
pundits forecast that the notebook market which has been growing faster than
the desktop market for the past three years is expected to overtake the desktop
market by the year 2011-12. A fall in prices, large deals from governments and
institutions and demand from consumers and sectors such as education are
expected to help the notebook numbers. According to research agencies, the year
2010-11 saw notebook volumes rise and for the first time, a million-plus
notebooks were sold in India
I) All this has resulted in a
noticeable change in a number of large government tenders for notebooks; which
were traditionally for desktops.
2) Because of this the
government still prefers desktops to notebooks and has passed tenders for the
same.
3) Thereby making them more
expensive.
4) Thus, the forecast for the
coming year states that desktops will be the preferred technology choice only
for consumers who cannot afford the exorbitantly priced notebooks.
5) Thus, notebooks will
become obsolete after a decade or so.
Directions (Q. 206-210): Rearrange
the following seven sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), (F) and (G) in the
proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given
below them.
(A) To elaborate briefly on
these characteristics and dimensions that the author is talking about -NRMs are
general tests intended to be used to classify students by percentile for
measuring either aptitude or proficiency for admissions into or placement
within a programme.
(B) Contrastingly, the CRM,
such as a locally produced achievement test, measures absolute performance that
is compared only with the learning objective, hence a perfect score is theoretically
obtainable by all students who have a mastery of the prespecified material, or
conversely, all students may fail the test.
(C) In most of these books,
the authors classify a measurement strategy as either norm-referenced (NRM) or
criterion-referenced (CRM).
(D) Another author points out
how the type of interpretation that an NRM offers is the relative performance
of the students compared with that of all the others resulting in, ideally, a
bell curve distribution.
(E) Numerous books on
constructing and using language tests have been written by various authors.
(F) CRMs, on the other hand,
are more specific achievement or diagnostic tests intended to be used for
motivating students by measuring to what per cent they have achieved mastery of
the taught or learned material.
(G) One of the authors
clearly delineates the differences of these two types by focusing on the
categories of "test characteristics" and "logistical
dimensions".
206. Which of the following
should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
I)G 2)B 3)C 4)D 5)E
207. Which of the following
should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
1)A 2)B 3)C 4) F 5)E
208. Which of the following
should be the SEVENTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?
l)A 2)B 3)C 4) D
5) E
209. Which of the following
should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
1)A 2) B 3)G 4)D 5)E
210. Which of the following
should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
l)A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5)F
Directions (Q. 211-215): The
following questions consist of a single sentence with one blank only. You are
given six words as answer choices and from the six choices you have pick up two
correct answers, either of which will make the sentence meaningfully complete.
211. Drugs worth Rs. 3 lakh
were _____ from the apartment by the police.
(A) manufactured (B) ruptured (c) seized (D)
confiscated (E)
bought
I)(A) & (D) 2)(B)
and (C) 3) (C) & (E) 4)(E) & (F) 5)(C)and(D)
212. A man reportedly
________ two passports with the same photograph but under different names was
arrested by the commissioner’s Task Force.
(A) possessing (B) examining (C) surrendering (D) mastering (E) holding (F) fixating
l)(B) and (C) 2)(C) and (F) 3)(A) and (E) 4) (A) and
(D) 5) (D) and (E)
213. The Hollywood
star and the Bollywood heroine are being __ as the next big onscreen couple.
(A) labeled (B)
explained
(C) worshiped (D) touted
(E) exclaimed (F) shouted
l)(B) and (D) 2) (A)and(C) 3)(B) and (F)
4) (A) and (D) 5) (C) and (D)
214. An organisation______ to
the mission of road safety has prepared an action plan for reducing accidents
and· related injuries and fatalities.
(A) specified (B)
inaugurated
(D) kicked off (E) succumbed
1) (C) and (F) 2) (A) and (E)
3) (C) & (E)
4) (D) and (F) 5) (A) and (C)
215. The ability of a woman
to do well does not________ on whether it is a man's world or not, because
everyone has his/her own opportunities.
(A) trust (B) depend (c) reckon
(D) live (E) rest
l)(D) and (E) 2)(B)and(C) 3)
(A) & (F)
4)(B) and (E) 5)(C)and(D)
Directions (Q. 216-220):
Below is given a single word with its meaning in different contexts as options.
You have to select all those options which are synonyms of the word when the
context is changed. Select the correct alternative from 1), 2), 3), 4) and 5)
which represents all those synonyms.
216. LABOUR
(A) expedite (B) to move faster (C)
controlled (D) toil
1) Only (D) 2) Both (A) & (C)
3) Only (B), (C) and (D) 5) All
(A), (B), (C) and (D)
217. MEAN
(A) imply (B) understand (C) average
(D) characterized by malice
1) Only(C) 2) Both (A) and (D)
3) Only (A), (C) and (D) 4)
Only (A), (B) and (D)
5) All (A), (B), (C) and (D)
2l8.REGUIAR
(A) present (B) common
(C) indiscriminate (D)
uniform
1) Only (D) 2) only (B), (C) & (D)
1) Only (D) 2) only (B), (C) & (D)
3) Both (A) and (C) 4)
only (A), (B) & (C)
5) All (A), (B), (C) and (D)
219. MASK
(A) cover (B)Hide (C) conceal
(D) disguise
1) Only (A) 2) Both (B) & (D)
3) Only (B), (C) and (D) 4) Only (A), (B) & (C)
5) All (A), (B), (C) and (D)
220. ALONE
(A) exclusively (B)
morose (C) solitary
(D) human being
1) Only (A)
2) Both (A) and (C)
3) Both (B) and (C)
4) Only (A), (C) and (D)
5) All (A), (B), (C) and (D)
Directions (Q. 221-235): In
the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These
numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are
suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate
word in each case.
As the country embarks on
planning (221) the 12th Plan (2012-17) period, a key question mark (222) hangs
over the process is on the energy requirements.
Growth is energy-hungry and
the aspirations of growing at 9-10% will (223) huge demands on the energy
resources of the country. In this energy jigsaw, renewable energy will (224)
like never before in the 12th Plan and the (225). By the rule of the thumb, India
(232) (233) this, capacity
addition in the renewable energy based power generation has touched about 3Gw a
year. In the coming five years, the overall capacity addition in the
electricity grid (234) renewable energy is likely to range between 20Gw and
25Gw. Additionally, over and above the grid-based capacity, off-grid
electricity applications are reaching remote places and (235) lives where grid-based
electricity supply has miserably failed.
221. 1) against 2)
for 3) onwards 4) at
5)on
222. 1) that 2) inside
3) always 4) who 5) where
223. 1) forward 2)
subject 3) place 4)
demand 5) replace
224. 1) pass 2) publish 3)
feature 4) find 5) light
225. 1) likewise 2) publicity 3) next 4) after 5) earlier
226. 1) waste 2) require
3) highlight 4) generate 5) consumed
227.1) structures 2) efforts 3) projections 4)
practices 5) developmental
228. 1) sure 2) unsure
3) unexpected 4)
unlikely 5) likely
229. 1) nominal 2) excelled 3) higher 4)
lower 5) expected
230. 1) failure 2) success
3) dangerous 4) maximum 5) marginal
231. 1) certain 2) linked 3) remarked 4)
expected 5) sure
232.1) When 2) But 3)
However 4) If 5)As
233. 1) for 2) with
3) is 4) ever 5) against
234. 1) through 2) project 3) versus 4) against 5)
capacity
235. 1) lightening 2) making 3) touching 4)
saving 5) generating
Directions (Q. 236-243): Read
the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Certain words are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some
of the questions.
Ina reversal of the norm
elsewhere, in India India India India India India
In India India
There is a view that because
a fair amount of growth is assured the government need not try very hard. The
liberalisation that began in 1991 freed markets for products and gave rise to
vibrant competition. At the same time what economists call factor markets,
those for basic inputs like land, power, labour etc, remains unreformed and
largely under state control, which creates difficulties. Clearances today can
take three to four years and many employers are keen to replace workers with
machines despite an abundance of labour force. This can be attributed to labour
laws which are inimical to employee creation and an education system that means
finding quality manpower a major problem. In fact, the Planning Commission
concluded that achieving even nine per cent growth will need marked
policy action in unreformed sectors. Twenty years ago it was said that the
yardstick against which India
236. Why are employers
reluctant to hire Indian labour force?
(A)India
(B) High attrition rate among
employees stemming from their entrepreneurial spirit
(C) Labour laws are not
conducive to generating employment.
1) Only (C) 2) All (A), (B) & (C) 3) Only (A) and (C) 4) Only (A) & (B) 5) None of these
237. What is the state of India
1) These sectors attract
Foreign Direct Investment because of their vast potential.
2) These sectors are lagging
as projects are usually awarded to foreign companies.
3) These sectors are
stagnating and badly in need of reforms.
4) These sectors are well
regulated as these are governed by the State.
5) None of these
238. Which of the following
can be said about the Indian economy at present?
1) It can comfortably achieve
double-digit growth rate at present.
2) High food prices have led
to overheating of the economy.
3) Citizens are affluent
owing to laxity in regulation.
4) Private sector confidence
in India
5) Unreformed sectors are a
drag on economic growth.
239. What impact has the GDP
growth of 7.8 per cent had?
(A) Indian Industry is
anxious about India
(B) India
(C) Foreign investment in India
1) Only (A) 2) All (A), (B) and (C) 3) Only t A) and (C) 4) Only(A) and (B) 5) None of these
240. Which of the following
is most opposite in meaning of the word 'marked' given in bold as used in the
passage?
1) Decreased 2) Ignored 3)
Clear 4) Assessed 5) Imperceptible
241. What is the author's
main objective in writing the passage?
1) Showcasing the potential
of India
2) Exhorting India
3) Recommending India
4) Berating the private
sector for not bidding for infrastructure development projects
5) Criticising the measures
taken by India
242. What measures do experts
suggest to be taken to ensure targeted economic growth?
1) Lowering of interest rates
to help industries hit by recession
2) Prolonged financial
support for basic input industries
3) Incentives to Indian
companies to invest in infrastructure
4) Formulation of policies
and their implementation in factor markets
5) Stringent implementation
of licensing system
243. Which of the following
is most similar in meaning to the word 'clout'. given in bold as used in
the passage?
I) Strike 2) Standing 3) Force 4)
Launch 5) Achieve
Directions (Q. 244-250): Read
the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Certain words/phrases are printed in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
In many countries, a
combustible mixture of authoritarianism, unemployment and youth has given rise
to disaffection with strongmen rulers, which has, in turn, spilled over into
uprisings. Young people in these countries are far better educated than their
parents were. In 1990, the average Egyptian had 4.4 years of schooling; by 2010,
the figure had risen to 7.1 years. Could it be that education, by making people
less willing to put up with restrictions on freedom and more willing to
question authority, promotes democratisation? Ideas about the links between
education, income and democracy are at the heart of what social scientists have
long studied. Since then plenty of economists and political scientists have
looked for statistical evidence of a causal link between education and
democratisation. Many have pointed to the strong correlation that exists
between levels of education and measures like the pluralism of party politics
and the existence of civil liberties. The patterns are similar when income and
democracy are considered. There are outliers, of course-until recently, many
Arab countries manage to combine energy-based wealth and decent education with
undemocratic political systems. But some deduce froll! the overall picture that
as China
This apparently reasonable
intuition is shakier than it seems. Critics of the hypothesis point out that
correlation is hardly causation. The general trend over the past half-century
may have been towards rising living standards, a wider spread of basic
education and more democracy, but it is entirely possible that this is being
driven by another variable. Even if the correlation were not spurious, it would
be difficult to know which way causation ran. Does more education lead to
greater democracy? Or are more democratic countries better at educating their
citizens? A recent NBER paper compared a group of Kenyan girls in 69 primary
schools whose students were randomly selected to receive a scholarship with
similar students in schools which received no such financial aid. Previous
studies had shown that the scholarship programme led to higher test scores and
increased the likelihood that girls enrolled in secondary school. Overall, it
significantly increased the amount of education obtained. For the new study,
the authors tried to see how the extra schooling had affected the political and
social attitudes of the women in question. Findings suggested that education
may make people more interested in improving their own lives but they may not
necessarily see democracy as the way to do it. Even in established democracies,
more education does not always mean either more active political participation
or greater faith in democracy. Poorer and less educated people often vote in
larger numbers than their more educated compatriots, who often express disdain
for the messiness of democracy, yearning for the kind of govemment that would
deal strongly with the corrupt and build highways, railway lines and bridges at
a dizzying pace of authoritarian China
244. Which of the following
is most similar in meaning to the word 'promotes' given in bold as used in the
passage?
1) Upgrades 2) Prefers 3)
Recommends 4) Advocates 5) Publicises
245. In the context of the
passage, which of the following characterise( s) democracies?
(A) Active participation of majority
of educated citizens in electoral process
(B) Fast, paced economic
growth and accountability of those in power
(C) Better standards of
living and access to higher education
I) All (A), (B) and (C) 2) Only (B) and (C) 3) Only (C) 4) Only (A)
and (B) 5) None of these
246. What, according to the
author, has led to uprisings in authoritarian countries?
1) Lack of access to
education
2) Vast numbers of uneducated
and unemployable youth
3) Frustration with the
existing system of governance
4) Unavailability of natural
energy resources like coal and oil
5) Government's
over-ambitious plans for development
247. What does the phrase
"messiness of democracy" convey in the context of the passage?
1) Democratic nations are
chaotic on account of individual freedoms.
2) Most democratic countries
frequently have violent revolts among their citizens.
3) The divide between the
poor and the educated is growing wider in democracies.
4) High levels of pollution
on account of frantic pace of infrastructure development
5) Resigned acceptance of
intrinsic corruption in the education system
248. Which of the following
is/are true about China
(A) China
(B) China
(C) China is in the midst of
a political revolution.
1) None 2) Only (A) 3) Only (A) and (C) 4)
Only (B) 5) All (A), (B) and (C)
249. What conclusion can be
drawn from the statistics cited about Egypt
1) Job prospects have been on
the rise in Egypt
2) Authoritarian leaders have
played a vital role in reforming Egypt
3) Egypt
4) Egypt
5) There has been a rise in
education levels in Egypt
250. Which of the following
most aptly describes the central theme of the passage?
1) Democratic nations are
richer and have a better track record of educating their citizens.
2) Education does not
necessarily lead to greater enthusiasm for a democratic form of government.
3) Educated societies with
autocratic form of government enjoy a better quality of life than democracies.
4) Citizens can fulfill their
personal aspirations only under a democratic form of government.
5) Democracy makes citizens
more intolerant as it does not restrict personal freedoms.
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